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CFA
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CFA一級知識點之多位數的解析

發(fā)表時間: 2014-11-24 14:14:51 編輯:

理解:variance 比MAD 要好,因為variance 是連續(xù)的,處處可導。MAD 計算的是絕對值,相對比較繁瑣。但是variance 和MAD 都是表示風險的。

R2-9-1 Measure of dispersion:
?Range=highest value‐lowest value

◆ Coefficient of variation: measures the amount of dispersion in a distribution relative
to the distribution's mean. It can be used to measure the risk per unit of return.
R2-9-2 MAD 和 Variance 掌握計算和比較:

◆ 理解:variance 比MAD 要好,因為variance 是連續(xù)的,處處可導。MAD 計算的
是值,相對比較繁瑣。但是variance 和MAD 都是表示風險的??嫉組AD 的 計算,這是好幾年沒有預估到的考點,一定要注意到MAD<=σ
知識點對應的試題如下:
R2-7 Describe, calculate, and interpret quartiles, quintiles, deciles, and percentiles

Q2-19Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. The first quintile generally exceeds the median.
B. The first quintile generally exceeds the first decile.
C. The first quintile generally exceeds the first quartile.

Solution: B
The first quintile is the 20th percentile. The first decile is the 10th percentile, the first quartile is
the 25th percentile, and the median is the 50th percentile. While it is possible that these various
percentiles or some subsets of them be equal (for example the 10th percentile possibly could be
equal to the 20th percentile), in general the order from smallest to largest would be: first decile,
first quintile, first quartile, median.

Q2-20 The following table shows the volatility of a series of funds that belong to the same peer group,ranked in ascending order:

Volatility (%)

Volatility(%)

Fund 1

9.81

Fund 8

13.99

Fund 2

10.12

Fund 9

14.47

Fund 3

10.84

Fund 10

14.85

Fund 4

11.33

Fund 11

15.00

Fund 5

12.25

Fund 12

17.36

Fund 6

13.39

Fund 13

17.98

Fund 7

13.42

The value of the first quintile is closest to
A. 10.70%
B. 10.84%
C. 11.09%

Solution: A
The position of the first quintile is:
L = (n + 1) ×(y/ 100),
where
y is the percentage point at which we are dividing the distribution. In our case we have y = 20,
which corresponds to the 20 percentile (first quintile);
n is the number of observations (funds) in the peer group. In our case we have n = 13;
L corresponds to the location of the 20 percentile (first quintile)
L = (13 + 1) ×( 20/100} = 2.80.
Therefore, the location of the first quintile is between the volatility of Fund 2 and Fund 3(because they are ranked in ascending order).
Then, use linear interpolation to find the approximate value of the first quintile:
P ≈ X + (2.80 - 2) × (X - X ),
where
X is the volatility of Fund 2
X is the volatility of Fund 3
P is the approximate value of the first quintile
P ≈10.12% + (2.80 - 2} × (10.84% -10,12%) = 10.70%

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